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2011-08-13
, 22:48
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Posts: 673 |
Thanked: 856 times |
Joined on Mar 2006
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#4072
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2011-08-13
, 23:33
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Posts: 738 |
Thanked: 983 times |
Joined on Apr 2010
@ London
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#4073
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2011-08-13
, 23:43
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Posts: 1,312 |
Thanked: 736 times |
Joined on Sep 2009
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#4074
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Wrong. WP7 lovers won't search for "WP7" . Instead, they search the phrase "windows phone". So sorry for that,this is the reality(If you want to describe reality with the trends):
http://www.google.com/trends?q=windo...ate=all&sort=0
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2011-08-14
, 00:09
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Posts: 840 |
Thanked: 823 times |
Joined on Nov 2009
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#4075
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I've used WP 6.5 extensively... the product has changed. Maybe it's not better, but it's certainly different.
The Following 2 Users Say Thank You to Cue For This Useful Post: | ||
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2011-08-14
, 00:54
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Posts: 194 |
Thanked: 172 times |
Joined on Jan 2011
@ Sydney, Australia
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#4076
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Hi erendorn
This is the exact reaction that any company aims for when re-branding. It's the sole reason they do it regardless of whether the product has changed .
The aggregated market share is much more reliable than a launch 0 to x number. I'll tell you why. Say your market share was declining at a rapid rate. Say 2% each quarter. If I re-branded this very same product, without even having to change anything, as in the exact same product, I can make it look like a market share increase. How? I'd call windows 6.5, Doors 6.5. Automatically without even having to do anything, I've made a market decrease look like a market increase. How? because I've split the graph, Doors 6.5 has gone from 0 market share to some positive number, even though my sales are dropping I can now say that Doors 6.5 went from 0 marketshare to some positive number, simply because I sold some I show a positive gradient. If however you look at the gradient throughout an actual period I am not increasing market share at all and whether or not I've actually changed my product becomes irrelevant to the statistics.
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2011-08-14
, 01:16
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Posts: 457 |
Thanked: 600 times |
Joined on Jan 2010
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#4077
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2011-08-14
, 01:18
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Posts: 840 |
Thanked: 823 times |
Joined on Nov 2009
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#4078
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Depends on your classification of re-branding; do not assume everyone agrees with you on that.
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2011-08-14
, 01:23
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Posts: 194 |
Thanked: 172 times |
Joined on Jan 2011
@ Sydney, Australia
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#4079
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Tags |
disapoint, eflop, epic win!, laggy interface, n9 rox, so much win, wateriswet, who cares, whyyyyy?????? |
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This is the exact reaction that any company aims for when re-branding. It's the sole reason they do it regardless of whether the product has changed .
The aggregated market share is much more reliable than a launch 0 to x number. I'll tell you why. Say your market share was declining at a rapid rate. Say 2% each quarter. If I re-branded this very same product, without even having to change anything, as in the exact same product, I can make it look like a market share increase. How? I'd call windows 6.5, Doors 6.5. Automatically without even having to do anything, I've made a market decrease look like a market increase. How? because I've split the graph, Doors 6.5 has gone from 0 market share to some positive number, even though my sales are dropping I can now say that Doors 6.5 went from 0 marketshare to some positive number, simply because I sold some I show a positive gradient. If however you look at the gradient throughout an actual period I am not increasing market share at all and whether or not I've actually changed my product becomes irrelevant to the statistics.
Last edited by Cue; 2011-08-13 at 22:52.